Evidence (albeit somewhat anecdotal) suggests than women are being asked to pay considerably more than men for almost identical consumer products. This seems to apply to clothing, toiletries, toys, even pens. Why? It is hard to believe that it costs more to produce products for women than men. So, I think we can safely discount the idea that the difference is being driven by costs. The far more likely explanation is price discrimination. To illustrate consider a very simple example. Imagine you are the owner of a company making jeans. It costs £25 to produce a pair of jeans and you are currently selling them at £50 a pair. At this price you sell 100 a week to men and 50 a week to women. The key question you have to consider is what would happen to sales if you increase (or decrease) the price? Suppose that at a price of £55 a pair you estimate you would sell 80 to men and 45 to women. On the male side this is a bad deal because profit falls from (50 - 25)(100) = £2,500 to (55
Some random thoughts on game theory, behavioural economics, and human behaviour